This recent WSJ article about how Persian cuisine is best suited for enjoyment in the home, as opposed to a restaurant setting, because of its "feast like" characteristics, had this sort of throw-away line that piqued my interest:
"The irony is that Persian food has probably had a greater influence than any Eastern cuisine other than Chinese. The Moroccan tagine is directly descended from the Persian khoresht stew, and India has taken both Persia's dishes and their names into its culture; Indian staples such as tandoori, nan bread, tikka, kebab, pilaf and biriani are all Persian words."
(Read the entire article here: http://online.wsj.com/article/SB10001...)
Is that really true?
Or, more precisely, are both of those conclusions accurate? That of all the Eastern cuisines, Chinese has had the most influence, and that Persian would be second?