I posted a flourless almond torte recipe to my blog (http://www.naturalchefshoshana.blogsp...) and had a friend ask me a question I don't know the answer to, so thought I'd query fellow Chowhounders...
The recipe calls for 1 1/2 cups almonds, which are ground to make your own almond flour. She evidently already has almond flour at home and is wondering if she can just measure out 1 1/2 cups of it, or what the conversion of 1 1/2 cups almonds (pre ground) to almond flour would be.
I wouldn't imagine it's 1:1. Does anyone know for sure?